Curious if you’ve seen longitudinal studies showing changes?
I’ve only seen cross sectional studies, showing differences, and none that also consider the common genetic variants. I’m wondering if the differences are related to the genetic differences, whether the associated disorders are manifest or not.
Since the investigations have been based on diagnoses, which are largely subjective opinion, results can be confounded by misdiagnoses.
Patients diagnosed with genetically related conditions, Autistic Spectrum, Major and Bipolar Depression, ADD/ADHD, and schizophrenia, may have misdiagnosed psychiatric conditions, where neurotypical subjects affect autistic behaviors, like the personality disorders, and the other way round.
I suspect the confusion will continue until the genetically similar subjects are observed separately.